On page 424 of the following paper:
S. Feferman, Harvey M. Friedman, P. Maddy and John R. Steel, ``Does Mathematics Need New Axioms?'' The Bulletin of Symbolic Logic, Vol. 6, No. 4 (Dec., 2000), pp. 401-446
John Steel makes the following remark in footnote 29:
There is the very remote possibility that one could show ZFC settles the questions without actually exhibiting the relevant ZFC-proofs. Goldbach's conjecture and the Riemann hypothesis are $\Pi_1^0$ statements, so one cannot prove them independent of ZFC without also proving them.
Could someone explain to me what kind of result/principle he is referring to here?
I'm guessing it's something of the form: ''For any $\Pi_1^0$ statement $\phi$ in PA (or, possibly, some weaker arithmetic) Ind(ZFC, $\phi$) iff some condition.'' The condition obviously can't be PA $\vdash \phi$ because, by soundness, that would imply that $\phi$ is not independent. But I can't think what other condition would justify Steel's remark.
I think what John Steel (not Steele) was referring to is a lot simpler than forcing and $\Pi^1_2$ absoluteness. Consider Goldbach's conjecture. If it were false, so there's some even number $n>2$ that is not the sum of two primes, then this fact could be proved in ZFC, and indeed in far weaker systems. The proof would consist of just the calculations checking, for each $k<n$, that at least one of $k$ and $n-k$ is composite (and checking that $n$ is even and $>2$). This shows that, if the Goldbach conjecture is false then it's refutable in ZFC. Therefore, if I knew that the Goldbach conjecture was independent of ZFC --- meaning it's neither provable nor refutable --- then, since it's not refutable, I'd know that it can't be false.
Summary: If we prove that the Goldbach conjecture is independent of ZFC (or even prove half of that, namely that it can't be refuted in ZFC), then we'd have established that it's true.
As indicated above, the same applies with ZFC replaced by far weaker theories; Peano arithmetic is more than enough.
The same also applies to the Riemann Hypothesis, but the argument is more complicated. The point is that, just as in the case of the Goldbach conjecture, if the Riemann Hypothesis were false, then this could be proved in ZFC by just writing out an appropriate computation. Unlike the Goldbach case, though, it's not so obvious what the computation should be. I believe it amounts to computing a sufficiently accurate approximation to a contour integral, over a contour that goes around an off-the-crtical-line zero of the zeta function.
The property of "if false then refutable by a mere calculation" is basically what $\Pi^0_1$ means in the passage cited from Steel.