Clearing up confusion about integrating two functions

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So I probably didn't understand it at first, but from what I learned, integrating two functions that are both below the x-axis would mean that we would do $\int-f(x)-g(x)$ instead of just $\int f(x)-g(x)$. Not sure if thats the case because I just had something where both the functions were under the x-axis on the given interval, and we still had to go by the $\int f(x)-g(x)$ order to solve it correctly.

Would appreciate some clarification on this matter.

Thanks in advance.

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If you really want to have the size of the area between the two curves, the formula to go with is $$\int_a^b\left|f(x)-g(x)\right|dx$$ Where $f(x)\geq g(x)$, this translates to $$\int f(x)-g(x) dx$$ Where $f(x)\leq g(x)$, it translates to $$\int g(x)-f(x) dx$$ But it never will be $$\int -f(x)-g(x) dx$$ if you look for the area between the two curves.

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If you want the area between the curves $y=f(x)$ and $y=g(x)$ on the interval $[a,b]$, and if $f(x) \ge g(x)$ on $[a,b]$, then the signs of $f,g$ don't matter. The vertical strips have heights $f(x)-g(x)$ (bigger $y$-value minus the smaller $y$-value), so the area is $$\int_a^b f(x)-g(x)\,dx$$ without any reference to where the curves are relative to the $x$-axis.

As another way to see it, we could shift both curves up by some positive constant $c$, big enough so that, on the interval $[a,b]$, the shifted curves are both above the $x$-axis. But the area of the shifted region is the same as that of the original region, hence the area, still assuming $f(x) \ge g(x)$ on $[a,b]$, is equal to $$\int_a^b \bigl(f(x)+c\bigr)-\bigl(g(x)+c\bigr)\,dx$$ which is algebraically the same as $$\int_a^b f(x)-g(x)\,dx$$ If the curves $y=f(x)$ and $y=g(x)$ cross each other on the interval $[a,b]$, you have to worry about the subintervals of $[a,b]$ where one function has $y$-values greater than the other. The area between the curves is then the sum of the appropriate integrals for each of the subintervals.