So I probably didn't understand it at first, but from what I learned, integrating two functions that are both below the x-axis would mean that we would do $\int-f(x)-g(x)$ instead of just $\int f(x)-g(x)$. Not sure if thats the case because I just had something where both the functions were under the x-axis on the given interval, and we still had to go by the $\int f(x)-g(x)$ order to solve it correctly.
Would appreciate some clarification on this matter.
Thanks in advance.
If you really want to have the size of the area between the two curves, the formula to go with is $$\int_a^b\left|f(x)-g(x)\right|dx$$ Where $f(x)\geq g(x)$, this translates to $$\int f(x)-g(x) dx$$ Where $f(x)\leq g(x)$, it translates to $$\int g(x)-f(x) dx$$ But it never will be $$\int -f(x)-g(x) dx$$ if you look for the area between the two curves.