Coding theory problem

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Let C be a binary code with lenght n and let's consider $\overline{C}$ the code obtained by C changing de 0 to 1 and the 1 to 0 in all code words. Obtain the parameters of $\overline{C}$ in function of C.

By intuition it is obvious that the lenght of the words won't change. Same with the amount of code words in C. So maybe the hard pass in this problem is to find what happen with the distance of C. But as far as it is a binary code , it is obvious that the distance of C will be equal to the ditance of $\overline{C}$.

It is all right? There is something i miss?

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For binary words $x,y$ of length $n$, $d(x,y) = d(1^n-x, 1^n-y)$ where $1^n$ is the word with $n$ $1$'s and $d$ means Hamming distance. The reason is that for the bit positions, $x_i=y_i$ iff $1-x_i=1-y_i$.