how can I find/what is the coefficient of the $x^4y^4$ and $x^6y^6$ term for the following generating function
$$\frac{1}{1-x-y-x^2y}$$
I've been informed I can do this by using Pascal's triangle, by adding an extra value of 2 back and 1 down but am unsure of how to? (I'm new to combinatorics)
A method to find the coefficient of $x^m y^n$ in $\frac{1}{1-x-y-x^2y}$ is described as follows.
First, let $$\frac{1}{1 - x - y - x^2y} = a_0(x) + a_1(x) y + a_2(x) y^2 + a_3(x) y^3 + \cdots .$$ We need to determine $a_n(x) y^n$. Clearly, $$\frac{\partial^n \tfrac{1}{1 - x - y - x^2y}}{\partial y^n} \Big\vert_{y=0} = n! a_n(x).$$ It is easy to obtain (since $1 - x - y - x^2y$ is affine in $y$) $$\frac{\partial^n }{\partial y^n} \frac{1}{1 - x - y - x^2y} = \frac{(-1)^n n! (-1-x^2)^n}{(1-x-y-x^2y)^{n+1}}.$$ Thus, we have $$a_n(x) = \frac{(1+x^2)^n}{(1-x)^{n+1}}.$$ By noting that $\frac{1}{1-x} = \sum_{j=0}^\infty x^j$ and $\frac{\partial^n }{\partial x^n} \frac{1}{1-x} = \frac{n!}{(1-x)^{n+1}}$, we have $$\frac{1}{(1-x)^{n+1}} = \frac{1}{n!}\frac{\partial^n }{\partial x^n}\sum_{j=0}^\infty x^j = \sum_{j=0}^\infty {n+j \choose j} x^j.$$ Also, $$(1+x^2)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} x^{2k}.$$ Thus, we have \begin{align} a_n(x) &= \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} x^{2k} \cdot \sum_{j=0}^\infty {n+j \choose j} x^j\\ &= \sum_{k=0}^n \sum_{j=0}^\infty {n\choose k} {n+j \choose j} x^{2k+j}. \end{align} The coefficient of $x^m$ in $a_n(x)$ is given by \begin{align} a_{mn} &= \sum_{2k+j = m, \ j\ge 0, \ 0\le k \le n} {n\choose k} {n+j \choose j} \\ &= \sum_{k=0}^{\min(n, \lfloor \frac{m}{2}\rfloor)} {n\choose k} {n+m-2k \choose m-2k}. \end{align}
For example, $$a_{44} = \sum_{k=0}^2 {4\choose k} {8-2k \choose 4-2k} = 136$$ and $$a_{66} = \sum_{k=0}^3 {6\choose k} {12-2k \choose 6-2k} = 2624.$$
Remark: In general, let $$f(x, y) = a_{00} + a_{10}x + a_{01}y + a_{20}x^2 + a_{11}xy + a_{02}y^2 + \cdots.$$ Clearly, $$ \frac{\partial^{m+n} f(x,y) }{\partial x^m \partial y^n}\Big\vert_{(x,y)=(0,0)} = m! n! a_{mn}$$ which results in \begin{align} a_{mn} = \frac{1}{m!}\frac{1}{n!} \frac{\partial^m }{\partial x^m} \Big(\frac{\partial^n f(x,y)}{\partial y^n} \Big\vert_{y=0}\Big)\Big\vert_{x=0}. \end{align}