I am working on the following problem:
Let $f, g$ be continuous nonnegative functions defined and improperly-integrable on $(0, \infty)$ Furthermore, assume they satisfy $$ \lim_{x\rightarrow 0}f(x) = 0 \wedge \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}xg(x)=0. $$ Then prove that $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}n\int_0^\infty f(x)g(nx)dx = 0. $$
I tried to swap $\lim$ and $\int$. I know that if the improper integral and its integrand converge uniformly, they commute. But I am at a loss as to how to prove this condition.
I would be grateful if you could help me in this regard.
Here is a way to use a direct bound for looking at the integral over $[1,\infty)$:
$\int_1^\infty f(x) ng(nx) dx \leq \int_n^\infty f(u/n) g(u) du = \int_n^\infty \frac{f(u/n)}{u} (u g(u)) du \leq \frac{1}{n} \int_n^\infty f(u/n) (ug(u)) du$
The latter inequality follows from the fact that in the integrand $u > n \geq 1$. If you get here, then by assumption, for sufficiently large $n$, $u(g(u))$ is small for $u > n$. See if you can finish from this angle.
Okay, there is a delicate procedure I have in mind which I will outline here: (Let $\epsilon > 0$ be given)
So the full bound is $\epsilon(|f|_1 + |g|_1)$, so now you can adjust a few parameters above to get it back to $\epsilon$ if you wish, though it suffices that you can bound by a quantity that is arbitrarily small, and hence the limit is $0$.