In this question, I use "model" to mean a model in the language $\{\in\}$ of set theory. Call a model $M$ "definable" iff for every $x \in M$, there is a formula $\phi(\vec{y},z)$, where $\vec{y} \in M$ is a sequence of parameters, such that $M \models \forall z (z \in x \leftrightarrow \phi(\vec{y},z))$.
I want the following variation on the compactness theorem: given a theory $T$ (in the language $\{\in\}$), if every finite subset of $T$ has a definable model, then $T$ has a definable model. Is this true?
[Edit: the question above is not interesting, as explained in an answer below. A potentially interesting variant is as follows. Say that a model $M$ is "definable" iff for every $x \in M$ there is a formula $\phi(z)$, without parameters, such that $M \models \forall z (z \in x \leftrightarrow \phi(z))$. Ask the same question. Or, ask the same question using pointwise definability, as described by Andres Caicedo.]
Thank you!
The question is not an interesting one, as Arthur Fischer explains:
Additionally, Andres Caicedo adds relevant information: