I came across the following equation which seems to be true in all cases that I test:
Let integers $x \ge 5, y \ge 4$:
$${x \choose 2}{y \choose 2} = \sum_{i=1}^5(-1)^{i-1}{5\choose i}{{x-i}\choose2}{{y-i}\choose2}$$
It is not clear to me why this should be true in so many different cases.
Could someone help me to find a counterexample or help me understand why it is true.
Here are examples:
$$60={5\choose2}{4\choose2} = {5\choose1}{4\choose2}{3\choose2} - {5\choose2}{3\choose2}{2\choose2} = 90 - 30$$
$$100={5\choose2}{5\choose2}={5\choose1}{4\choose2}{4\choose2} - {5\choose2}{3\choose2}{3\choose2} + {5\choose3}{2\choose2}{2\choose2}= 180 - 90 + 10$$
Easier, I think, to show the equivalent formulation: $$\sum_{i=0}^5 (-1)^i\times \binom 5i\times \binom {x-i}2\times \binom {y-i}2=0$$ to see this use the identity $$\sum_{j=0}^n(-1)^j\times \binom nj\times P(j)=0$$ where $P(k)$ is any polynomial of degree $<n$, see this for a proof (it appears around the discussion of formula $(10)$). Your result follows once you note that, for all $(x,y)$, $\binom {x-i}2\times \binom {y-i}2$ is a polynomial of degree $4$ in $i$.