I am trying to prove that if $T$ is a complete first order theory that has a finite model then it has exactly one model up to isomorphism. To this end, I assumed that $T$ is complete with a finite model $M_n$. Then I assumed that $M_m$ was another model of size $m \geq n$. We know that if a theory has two finite models with different cardinalities then the theory is incomplete hence $m = n$. Now two things remain to be shown: one is that any two models of finite size $n$ are isomorphic and the other is that every infinite model is also isomorphic to this finite model (is this even possible? but we clearly need to do something about the infinite case)
Thanks for helping me finish this proof. For the record: this is an exercise in Just/Weese, page 84.
Edit
I'm looking for a sentence $\varphi$ such that if $M_n \models \varphi$ then $M_n \cong M_m$. There are no assumptions on the language. But I think it's not possible to have a finite model for an infinite language so the language must be finite.
Edit 2
After some more thinking, if there is a finite model $M$ of size $n$, let $$ \varphi = \exists v_1, \dots , v_n ((v_1 \neq v_2) \land \dots \land (v_{n-1} \neq v_n)) \land \lnot \exists v_{n+1} ((v_{n+1} \neq v_1) \land \dots \land (v_{n+1} \neq v_n))$$ that is, $\varphi$ says that the model has exactly $n$ elements. Since $T$ is complete, either $\varphi$ or $\lnot \varphi$ is provable from $T$. Since we have a model in which $\varphi$ is true we therefore know that $T \vdash \varphi$. Hence any model of $T$ must have exactly $n$ elements.
Now the question is, how do I show that any two $n$-element models of $T$ must be isomorphic?
I will assume (without loss of generality) that $T$ is closed under consequences, that is if $T\vdash \varphi$, then $\varphi\in T$.
First, assume that the language $L$ is finite. In this case, show that for any model $M$ with $n$ elements, there is a sentence of the form $$\varphi_L=\exists x_1,\ldots, x_n\left( \left (\forall x \left(\bigvee x=x_j\right)\right)\wedge \varphi_L'(x_1,\ldots,x_n)\right)$$such that if $N\models \varphi$, then $N\cong M$. Obviously if $M\models T$, then $\varphi_L\in T$
Then proceed with the following:
As for your edit, a single sentence will never be enough for an infinite language, because it will only say something about finitely many symbols. Even in the trivial case of $L=\{p_n\vert n\in\omega \}$ with $p_n$ unary relation symbols, $T$ the theory of $M$ where $\lvert M\rvert=\{*\}$ and each $p_n^M=\emptyset$ no single sentence will suffice (because no matter what it might be, there will be an $n_0$ such that $p_{n_0}$ does not occur within it, and then it will not imply that $\exists x p_{n_0}(x)$ nor its negation).
If a sentence can be expressed in language $L'\subseteq L$, then you can't infer from it anything nontrivial about interpretations of symbols of $L\setminus L'$.