I have $$f _k(z)=\int_0^1e^{-t^2}t^{\frac z k}\frac {dt} t$$ I must show that $f_k$ is holomorphic on the set $\Pi= \{z:\mathrm {Re} (z)\gt0\}$. There is a theorem stating that if $e^{-t^2}t^{\frac z k}\frac {1} t $ was jointly continuous in $\Pi ×[0,1]$, and holomorphic in $z $ for every $t\in [0,1]$, then $f_k$ would be holomorphic in $\Pi$.
However here we have a function which is not continuous in $t=0,z=\frac 1 2$ (for example), while on the other side, for each fixed $t $, it is entire in $z$. So I would say that there is an other way to show that $f_k $ is holomorphic in $\Pi $. Thank you in advance
Let $h_n \to 0$ a sequence if complex numbers and $w \in \Bbb{C}$
$$\frac{f_k(w+h_n)-f_k(w)}{h_n}=\int_0^1 \frac{1}{h_n}e^{-t^2}[t^{\frac{w+h_n}{k}}-t^{\frac{w}{k}}]\frac{dt}{t}=:\int_0^1g_n(t)dt$$
Note that $g_n(t) \to \frac{e^{-t^2}}{t}t^{\frac{w}{k}}\frac{\ln{t}}{k}$
Combining all these estimations we have that $|g_n(t)| \leq \frac{1}{k}e^{-t^2}t^{\frac{M+\Re{w}}{k}-1}|\ln{t}| \in L^1(0,1)$
So by dominated convergence we have the conclusion.