$$\left ( 1 + \cos \frac{π}{6} + i \sin\frac{π}{6} \right )^6$$
For a question like this, the first thing I would think of using is the DeMoivre's Theorem, however, with the entire real part of it being (1+cos(π/6)), I'm not sure if the rule will apply.
How do I approach this?
Hint : remark that, for any $\theta \in \mathbb{R}$, we have $$1+e^{i \theta}= e^{i 0}+e^{i \theta}=e^{i \theta/2}(e^{-i \theta/2 }+e^{i \theta/2})=2e^{i \theta/2} cos(\theta/2).$$