I need to prove the following claim:
PROBLEM: Asuume $U_1,U_2\subseteq\mathbb C$ are domains in $\mathbb C$. Show that if $f:U_1→U_2$ is holomorphic and $u:U_2\to\mathbb R$ is subharmonic and continuous, then $u∘f:U_1\to\mathbb R$ is subharmonic.
This problem has already been answered here, but I need a proof that does not use the smooth approximation of subharmonic functions. A solution for the case in which $f$ is invertible can be found here. I'm trying to generalize the latter solution into every $f\in Hol(U_1)$ ($f$ is not necessarily invertible and $u$ is not necessarily differentiable).
The definition of subharmonic function is:
We say that $u:\Omega\to\mathbb R$ is subharmonic if for every $\bar B(z_0,r)\subseteq\Omega $ we have $$ u(z_0)\leq \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} u(z_0+re^{it})dt$$
I have also learned the following theorem:
A continuous function $v:\Omega\to\mathbb R$ is subharmonic if and only if for any harmonic function $u:\Omega'\to\mathbb R$ where $\Omega'\subseteq\Omega$ the difference $v-u$ satisfies the maximum principle in $\Omega'$.
And this claim (I'm not sure it's necessary here):
Let $\Omega=B(z_0,r)$. Assume $v:\Omega\to\mathbb R$ is subharmonic and continuous, and $u:\bar\Omega\to\mathbb R$ is continuous in $\bar\Omega$ and harmonic in $\Omega$. Then if $$\forall a\in\partial\Omega. \limsup_{z\to a} v(z) \leq u(a)$$, then $\forall z\in\Omega. v(z)\leq u(z)$.
Any help would be appreciated!
There is a sketch of the proof in Ransford's book Potential Theory on the Complex Plane, Exercise 2.4.2. I haven't found the proof for the first part:
So, let us assume that the above fact it is true. It is not difficult to prove the following statement (Exercise 2.4.2.ii in Ransford's book).
In order to prove this, consider the holomorphic function $h(z) = f(z)-f(w)$. As $h$ has a zero of order $k$, it admits the following representation as a power series:
$$h(z) = h_k(z-w)^k + h_{k+1}(z-w)^{k+1}+\cdots,$$ where $h_k\neq 0$. Thus, $$h(z) =(z-w)^k\phi(z)$$ where $\phi$ is holomorphic in a neighborhood of $w$ and $\phi(w)\neq 0$. Consequently, we can define the $k$-th root of $\phi$: $$\psi(z) = \phi^{1/k}(z).$$ Now, the function $h$ has the following representation $$h(z) = [(z-w)\psi(z)]^k,$$ where $(z-w)\psi(z)$ is holomorphic and injective in a neighborhood of $w$. This fact can be easily checked just differentiating $(z-w)\psi(z)$. Finally, $f(z) = [(z-w)\psi(z)]^k + f(w)$, and taking $g(z) = [(z-w)\psi(z)]^k$ the proposition holds.
Now, using the two propositions above we are able to prove that $u\circ f$ is subharmonic. First, assume that $f(w)=0$, and $w$ is a zero of order $k$ (implicitly I am assuming $0\in U_2$). Then, $f(z) = g^k(z)$ for certain holomorphic and injective map $g$. So, $u\circ f(z) = u(g^k(z))$. But $u\circ g$ is subharmonic in a neighborhood of $0$, and by the first proposition $u(g^k(z))$ is also subharmonic.
In case $f(w)\neq 0$, just consider a small disc around $f(w)$ and take a conformal map $\Phi$ from this disc into the unit disc. Then, $$u\circ f = (u\circ \Phi^{-1})\circ(\Phi\circ f) = u^*\circ f^*,$$ where $u^*$ is subharmonic and $f^*$ is holomorphic. With this representation we are in the same case as before.