Exercise: Compute $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_\limits{0}^{1}\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^4}dx.$$
Solution:$$\int_\limits{0}^{1}\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^4}dx=\frac{1}{n}\int_\limits{0}^{n}\frac{y}{1+\frac{y^4}{n^2}}dy=n\int_\limits{0}^{n}\frac{y}{n^2+y^4}dy=\frac{n}{2}\int_\limits{0}^{n}\frac{dy^2}{n^2+y^4}=\frac{n}{2}\int_\limits{0}^{n^2}\frac{du}{n^2+u^2}$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}\int_\limits{0}^{n^2}\frac{\frac{du}{n}}{1+(\frac{u}{n})^2}=\frac{1}{2}\arctan(n)$$
$\lim_\limits{n\to\infty}\dfrac{1}{2}\arctan(n)=\dfrac{\pi}{4}$
Questions:
$1$) I examined this solution and I did not understand the following step: $$n\int_\limits{0}^{n}\frac{y}{n^2+y^4}dy=\frac{n}{2}\int_\limits{0}^{n}\frac{dy^2}{n^2+y^4}$$ How is this possible? Is there any theorem behind it? If there is can you direct me to a proof of it.
$2$) If $f_n$ converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ then $$\int_\limits{a}^{b}f(x) dx=\lim_\limits{n\to\infty}\int_\limits{a}^{b}f_n(x)$$
I computed $\lim_\limits{n\to\infty}\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^4}=0$ so the function converges uniformly, is that right? Why cannot I apply the the given result?
Thanks in advance!

For 1, $2ydy=d(y^2)$. It is used to change the variable from $y$ to $y^2$.
For 2, the limit is not 0, but a Dirac delta function. You can go to one of the intermediate steps, where you have $$\frac{n/2}{n^2+u^2}$$ If you look for example on wikipedia, You can write the Dirac delta function as a limit of a sequence of functions. In particular, the Poisson kernel $$\frac{1}{\pi}\frac{\epsilon}{\epsilon^2+x^2}$$ looks exactly like your function to integrate.