I have a problem with the following exercise:
We have the operator $T: l^1 \to l^1$ given by
$$T(x_1,x_2,x_3,\dots)=\left(\left(1-\frac11\right)x_1, \left(1-\frac12\right)x_2, \dots\right)$$ for $(x_1,x_2,x_3,\dots)$ in $l^1$. Showing that this operator is bounded is easy, but I am really desperate with showing that the norm $\|T\| = 1$.
I know that for bounded operators the norm is defined as $\|T\|=\sup{\left\{\|T(x)\|: \|x\| \le 1\right\}}$.
I am also wondering if there exists a x in $ l^1$ such that $\|x\|=1 $
and $\|T(x)\|= \|T\|$
Thank you! :)
First observe that $\|T\|\le 1$.
Fix a large $n$ and let $x_n=(\dots,0,1,0,\dots)$ with $1$ exactly at the $n$th position and $0$ everywhere else. We have $Tx_n = (1-\frac1n) x_n$, $\|x_n\|=1$ and $\|Tx_n\| = 1-\frac1n.$ This shows $\|T\|\ge 1- \frac1n$. Now let $n\to\infty$ to conclude $\|T\|\ge 1$.