I saw this result and tried to proof, but I probably made a mistake throughout the computation and I cannot spot where it is. Can someone please help me?
$$S=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n \zeta(n+1)}{2}=\frac{\pi^2}{4}$$
I started by the integral representation
$$\frac{1}{k^{n+1}}=\frac{1}{\Gamma(n+1)}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-ku}u^n du $$
$$S=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}n\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\Gamma(n+1)}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-ku}u^n du $$
Supposing I can swap integration and summation
$$S=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-ku}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{n!}u^n du\\ =\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-ku}u\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{u^{n-1}}{(n-1)!} du\\ =\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}ue^{-ku}e^udu\\ =\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}ue^{-(k-1)u}du\\ =\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(k-1)^2}\\$$
which clearly is not the right answer!
As it stands, the series does not converge (note K. defaoite's observation) as $\zeta(n)\to1$ for $n\to\infty$ and consequently $n\zeta(n+1)\to\infty$. If, however, we use $\zeta(n+1)-1$ instead we obtain a converging series (found by Mason). Then there also is an easier way than using integrals though:
$$ \sum_{n\ge1} n(\zeta(n+1)-1)=\sum_{n\ge1}\sum_{k\ge2}\frac n{k^{n+1}}=\sum_{k\ge2}\frac1{(k-1)^2}=\frac{\pi^2}6 $$
Your computations are fine. Assuming not given convergence the same argument as above applies and gives you the same final series as you have obtained via integration.