Consider the infinite series $$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\epsilon_k}{k}, \quad \epsilon_k = \begin{cases} +1 \quad (n = 1 \; \text{or} \; n \; \text{prime})\\ -1 \quad \text{otherwise} \end{cases} $$ The series is clearly not absolutely convergent, and I suspect that it diverges. I am interested in proofs that settle the convergence question, from elementary to advanced.
This question came up in my Calculus class today.
You could use Kronecker's Lemma in the form that if the sequence $\sum_{k=1}^n {\epsilon_k\over k}$ converges, then ${1\over n}\sum_{k=1}^n \epsilon_k\to 0$. This would imply, for the prime counting function $\pi(n)$, that ${\pi(n)\over n}\to {1\over 2}.$
But only two of every six consecutive integers can possibly be prime, so ${\pi(6n)\over 6n}\leq {1\over 3}$, which gives a contradiction.