I am reading this excerpt from this book. I do not understand how the self-adjointness of the operator $iA_0$ is proven. It is shown that it has to be symmetric and the range of $I\lambda-iA_0$ is dense in the Hilbert space $L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and the Fourier transform is invoked as well as the space $C_0^{\infty}$. I don't follow that.
1- I can figure out what definition of self-adjointness is being used.
2- I do not follow the argument that constructs the solution to $(\lambda I-iA_0)u = f$ using the Fourier Transform. What exactly is the method for solving such equations (it doesn't look like a typical Fourier transform to me) and why is the solution an element of $D(A_0)=H^2$?

There's a criterion that a densely-defined symmetric operator T is self-adjoint if and only if
There are variations of this theme such as
The proof is found in almost any textook on the subject of unbounded operators and their spectral theorem. Skimming through, I think it's in here. There are probably more sources on the net if you look more thoroughly.
The dimensions of the orthogonal complements of $\operatorname{Range}(T\pm iI)$ are called the deficiency indices of $T$ and are a measure of how far it is from being maximally-symmetric or self-adjoint.