Conditions on $f$ to have $ \int_{x=0}^1\int_{y=0}^1\int_{z=0}^1 \frac{f(x)}{(x-y)^2 (y-z)} dz dy dx $ finite?

Question

Suppose that $f$ is a $\mathcal{C}^\infty$ function.

$$ \int_{x=0}^1\int_{y=0}^1\int_{z=0}^1 \frac{f(x)}{(x-y)^2 (y-z)} dz dy dx $$

Which are the conditions on $f$ that makes this integral finite ?

Thank you by advance.