Our professor mentioned in class that for $a \in \mathbb{R}^n$, $b \in \mathbb{R}$, $b \neq 0$ and $x_1, ..., x_k \in \{x \in \mathbb{R}^n\ :\ a^Tx = b\}$, $x_1, ..., x_k$ are affinely independent iff they are linearly independent. I don't have good intuition for what affine independence even represents. Would anyone be able to provide insight into why this is true?
2026-03-27 08:41:47.1774600907
Conditions under which affine independence equivalent to linear independence?
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The statement is correct.
If the $x_i$ are affinely dependent, they are also linearly dependent (since the zero sum exhibiting the affine dependence also exhibits a linear dependence).
Conversely, let $\sum_i\lambda_ix_i=0$. Then $a^\top\sum_i\lambda_ix_i=\sum_i\lambda_ia^\top x_i=\sum_i\lambda_ib=b\sum_i\lambda_i$. Since $b\ne0$, it follows that $\sum_i\lambda_i=0$. Thus the linear dependence is also an affine dependence.