Confused about a version of Schauder's fixed point theorem

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I have read this:

We have a map $S:W_0 \to W_0$. Moreover $W_0$ is not empty, convex, and weakly compact in $W$. Thus we can apply Schauder's fixed point theorem:

Schauder's fixed point theorem: If $E$ is convex compact subset of a Banach space and if $S:E \to E$ is continuous then there is a fixed point of $S$.

So we just need to prove that $S$ is weakly continuous (from $W_0 \to W_0$).

Why the author checks for weakly continuous instead of the stronger continuity? Can someone give me a good definition of weakly compact (in terms of sequences and boundedness)? Thanks.

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I will answer your last question ("Can someone give me a good definition of weakly compact (in terms of sequences and boundedness)?"), and I will try to edit the post later to see if I can answer the rest.

Let us denote by $X^*$ the space of all linear continuous functional on $X$, a normed vector space. Then, the weak topology $\sigma(X,X^*)$ on $X$ is the final topology on $X$ with respect to $X^*$. Then, a set $A$ is weakly compact if it is compact with respect to the weak topology $\sigma(X,X^*)$. Thus, $A$ is weak sequentially compact, by the Eberlien-Smulian theorem (see Proof of Eberlein–Smulian Theorem for a reflexive Banach spaces). So,

"Theorem": $A$ is weakly compact if every sequence in $A$ has a convergent subsequence whose limit is in $A$.