My book states:
if $q: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$ is a positive definite quadratic form then there exists a basis $B=(v_1,...,v_n)$ such that $q(x)=x_1^2+...+x_n^2=||x||^2$ for every $x=x_1v_1+...+x_nv_n$
But what do I know about the basis $B$? Is it orthonormal? If not, I'm having a hard time justifying the fact that $x_1^2+...+x_n^2=||x||^2$.
On
The problem here seems to be that you seem to be taking $\lVert x \rVert$ to mean the canonical norm on $\mathbb R^n$, whereas your book uses it to mean the norm defined by $q$. This has nothing to do with the basis $B$; you can just take out the sum of the squares of the coefficients $x_i$ and are left with the equation $q(x)=\lVert x \rVert^2$. The basis $B$ doesn't occur here, and the equation clearly shows that $\lVert x \rVert$ is to be interpreted as the norm defined by $q$ and not the canonical norm. The notion of orthonormality, too, is relative to the norm/quadratic form, so, as wildildildlife has shown, $B$ is indeed orthonormal, but orthonormal with respect to $q$, not in the canonical sense.
On
The basis $B$ of the question can be obtained by the Gram-Schmidt orthonormalization process, or by any one of several other processes that have better numerical stability properties.
With respect to the basis obtained from Gram-Schmidt, the quadratic form collapses to the shape $\sum x_i^2$ (that's what orthonormal basis means), meaning that the norm defined by the quadratic form is exactly $\sum x_i^2$. The fact that this is the norm defined by the quadratic form is not an additional fact, it is built into the assertion that with respect to $B$, the quadratic form assumes a certain shape.
Yes, this is in fact implied by the statement. Let $B$ denote the associated symmetric bilinear form, i.e. $2B(x,y)=q(x+y)-q(x)-q(y)$. Of course for $x=v_i$ we have $x_j=\delta_{ij}$. Now
$q(v_i)=x_i^2=1^2=1$,
and if $i\neq j$ then
$2B(v_i,v_j)=q(v_i+v_j)-q(v_i)-q(v_j)=(x_i^2+x_j^2)-x_i^2-x_j^2=(1^2+1^2)-1^2-1^2=0$.
Thus the basis is orthonormal.