Sorry if this is a really dumb question, but...
After reading How to Prove it, I've become a little confused. On page 70, an example stating something similar to this is provided:
$[\exists x P(x) \land \exists x Q(x)]$ and $\exists x [P(x) \land Q(x)]$ are two different things,
and says that for the first statement, there could be a person that makes p(x) true, and there could be a different person that makes q(x) true.
I thought that if we picked an x value, it would apply across the whole statement? What is the purpose of using different variable names if not?
Thanks in advance!
The meaning is that the two formulae are not equivalent.
Let $P(x)$ interpreted as "x is Even" and $Q(x)$ interpreted as "x is Odd".
Clearly, in the domain $\mathbb N$ of natural numbers :
while :
In this formula the scope of the quantifier $\exists x$ is the whole formula $[P(x)∧Q(x)]$; thus, when you "pick" an $x$, in order to satisfy the formula it is necessary that for that $x$ both $P$ and $Q$ holds.
In the previous formula, the two quantifiers $\exists x$ have different scope : the first one "acts on" $P(x)$ only and the second one on $Q(x)$. Thus, in order to satisfy the formula, we have the "freedom" to "pick" an $x$ for which $P$ holds and a different one for which $Q$ holds.