I'm (self-studying, so I can't ask the author/professor, and) trying to figure out 1.8.4, which relies on 1.8.3. What's got me confused is:
- Both these problems are referring to the same set X, right? And
- $\approx$ is referring to a partition where, if $x \in X_\iota$, $[x]_{\approx} := \{ y \in X : y \in X_\iota\}$, right?
If so, is this how one would go about the proof?
$\Rightarrow$ Suppose $x \sim y$. Then $x, y \in [y]_{\sim}$ by the definition of an equivalence class. This is a subset of X and a member of a partition class of X. If we denote this subset $X_\iota$, , then we can see that $x \approx y$.
$\Leftarrow$ Suppose $x \approx y$. This means that $\exists \iota \in I : x \in X_\iota, y \in X_\iota$, which is the definition in 1.8.3 of $x \sim y$. This set $X_\iota = [x]_\sim = [y]_{\sim} $, so $x \sim y$.


Both of these problems are talking about an arbitrary set $X$. Technically, $\approx$ refers to an equivalence relation not a partition.
Your proof is correct.
Another way to represent this proof is to write $$ x \sim y \ \Leftrightarrow \ \exists \iota\in I: (x\in X_{\iota} \textrm{ and } y\in X_{\iota}) \ \Leftrightarrow x \approx y. $$