Something about the notion of equality bothers me. Let's consider an example from group theory, the group with two elements $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}=\{0,1\}$ under the binary operation satisfying $0+0=0$ and $0+1=1+0=1$.
Based on my understanding of equality, the statement $(1+1)+1=1$, contains no mathematical content beyond $1=1$, since the group element $(1+1)+1$ literally is the group element $1$. This bothers me...
It seems to me that there are two mathematical structures in question. The group $G=\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ which is the set $\{0,1\}$ coupled with a binary function (subset of $\big((G\times G),G\big)$) which is the set $\{\big((0,0),0\big),\big((0,1),1\big),\,\big((1,0),1\big)\}$. This group structure seems to induce (or maybe the other way around?) a new mathematical structure describing the behavior of the symbols used to describe $G$. Perhaps this new mathematical structure $\mathcal{G}$, could be thought of as equivalence classes of words in $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ under the natural operation. Then, the statement $[(1+1)+1]=[1]$ where $[1]\in\mathcal{G}$ and $[(1+1)+1]\in\mathcal{G}$ are both equivalence classes of words in $G$ actually has real mathematical content, namely that $(1+1)+1$ and $1$ are in the same equivalence class.
When I read the statement $(1+1)+1=1$, I want to be able to mathematically (not just mentally) interpret equality as $(1+1)+1$ and $1$ are distinct representations of the same group element.
Is this point of view wrong/unhelpful? Is there some field that studies questions like this? If so, I would love textbook recommendations (early graduate level). Based on my very limited knowledge, I wonder if this is related to model theory or the theory of formal languages. Feel free to retag.
I know there are probably many different perspectives to this, but I'll try to lay out the one I'm most familiar with here.
In formal first-order logic, there's always a clear distiction made between syntax and semantics. Terms are syntactic objects; they can be built out of variables like "$x$", constant symbols like "$1$" and function/operation symbols like "$+$", but have on their own no meaning beyond the syntax trees they represent. For example, "$(1+1)+1$" and "$1$" are two terms, and they have clearly different syntax trees, so we say they're syntactically unequal.
However, we haven't yet said anything about what exactly the symbols "$1$" and "$+$" we used mean. To actually give that term semantic meaning, we need to choose something for those symbols to refer to; we need to choose a structure to interpret that in. That structure $(A,f,a)$ can be any set $A$ with a binary operation $A\times A\to A$ to interpret "$+$" as and an element $a\in A$ to interpret "$1$" as; $(\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z,+_{\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z},[1])$ would be one example, but we could also choose $(\mathbb Z,+_{\mathbb Z},1)$, $(\mathbb N,+_\mathbb N,1)$ or any other. Since the terms "$(1+1)+1$" and "$1$" both evaluate to $[1]$ in the first case we say that they are semantically equal in $(\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z,+,[1])$, but not for example in $(\mathbb Z,+,1)$. Similarly, if we also introduce a constant symbol "$2$", "$1+1$" and "$2$" are syntactially different but semantically equal in $(\mathbb Z,+,1,2)$.
Another notion of equality maybe worth mentioning comes from the fact that, of course, mathematicians don't always want to add in a new constant symbol for something they can already uniquely define; instead, they'll just define the term "$2$" to mean the term "$1+1$". "$1+1$" and "$2$" would then for example be not just semantically but also definitionally equal in $(\mathbb Z,+,1)$, while terms like "$2+1$" and "$1+2$" are equal only semantically but not by definition.