Let R be asymmetric. We need to show R is irreflexive.
So by definition, we assume:
- (x,y)∈R⟹(y,x)∉R
Definition of irreflexivity:
- (x,x)∉R
Let's do an indirect proof, so we assume:
- (x,x)∈R
Use Modus Ponens on 1 and 3, we get (x,x)∉R - contradiction. QED
The modus ponens step is where I get confused: the antecedent of the conditional is (x,y)∈R, but we are replacing it with (x,x)∈R instead. If the variables are different, how could we do that?
I suspect I may have confusion about the fundamental meaning of a variable, because by intuition this seems like a legitimate step, but I want to make sure I get it 100%. Could anyone help please?
As you correctly point out, your problem comes from not understanding variables properly. It is invalid to use $x,y$ without stating what it is.
Given any asymmetric relation $R$ on a collection $S$:
For any $x,y \in S$:
$(x,y) \in R \rightarrow (y,x) \notin R$.
For any $x \in S$:
$(x,x) \in R \rightarrow (x,x) \notin R$.
If $(x,x) \in R$:
$(x,x) \notin R$.
Contradiction.
Therefore $(x,x) \notin R$.
Therefore $R$ is irreflexive.