Question : Is this what this property of Big O Notation is trying to explain?
The Big O property , at the reference, it's the theorem 4,
It says :
Let $d,e,f,g : N \to R $ be functions. Then :
(4) $d(n) \in O(f(n))$ and $f(n) \in O(g(n)) $ then $d(n) \in O(g(n))$
My understanding :
$n^2 \in O(n^2) $ and $n^2 \in O(n^2) $ then $n^2 \in O(n^2)$
This seems correct but im not sure the theorem would be that simple. I feel im missing something.. Would someone ,please, clarify?
Reference : http://www.inf.ed.ac.uk/teaching/courses/cs2/LectureNotes/CS2Bh/ADS/02-03/lecture2.pdf
Another way to say this:
$d(n) \in O(f(n))$ means there is a $u > 0$ such that, for all large enough $n$, $|d(n)| \le u|f(n)|$.
Similarly, $f(n) \in O(g(n))$ means there is a $v > 0$ such that, for all large enough $n$, $|f(n)| \le v|g(n)|$.
Therefore, for all large enough $n$, $|d(n)| \le u|f(n)| \le uv|g(n)|$, so that $d(n) \in O(g(n))$, with a valid value for the constant being $uv$.