I'm currently stumped on this question:
Let $a$ and $m$ be integers such that $m\ge1$. Consider the congruence class of $a$, i.e., $[a]$ modulo $m$. Prove that: For all $x\in[a]$, $\gcd(x,m)=\gcd(a,m)$.
From this, I know that the congruence class of $[a]$ modulo $m$ is the set of integers
$[a]={x\in Z|x\equiv a\pmod m}$}. And by the Linear Congruence Theorem, $x\equiv a\pmod m$ if and only if $\gcd(x,m)|a$.
I'm not sure where I can go from knowing this. Any ideas?
Another way to write your equivalence class: $x\equiv a \mod m \iff a=km+x$ for an integer $k$, which you can easily prove since $a\equiv b\mod m\iff m|(a-b)$.
Now I suggest thinking about the Euclidean algorithm, and you might find yourself being done fairly soon.
Edit: I've just looked at your criterion $x\equiv a\mod m\iff GCD(x,m)|a$ again, and it seems wrong to me. Take $x=1,m=3$, for instance. $GCD(3,1)=1|a$ for any integer $a$, but obviously $1\equiv a\mod 3 \quad\forall a\in\mathbb{Z}$ is not true.