Here's a conjecture,
There are infinitely many numbers $N$, such that for all prime numbers $P<N$
$0 \equiv N \pmod 2$ and
$1 \equiv N \pmod 3$ and
$0 \leq N \pmod P \leq (P-4)$, for $P \geq 5$
For eg: 10
$10$ mod $2$ $\equiv 0$
$10$ mod $3$ $\equiv 1$
$10$ mod $5$ $\equiv 0$
$10$ mod $7$ $\equiv 3$
Is this a known conjecture? Does it have a proof?
If not, is there a way to prove or disprove this?
The first two conditions force N = 4 (modulo 6) and N+2 is a multiple of 6.
If N + 2 = 6pq where p >= 5 is a prime, then N+2 is divisible by p, therefore N = (p-2) modulo p, so N doesn’t meet the conditions. Therefore the only choices for N are $N = 2^m 3^n - 2$ where n, m >= 1.
There are 1178 such numbers $N < 2^{64}-2$. 62 don’t fail for any prime < 1,000. 32 don’t fail for any prime < 100,000 and 27 don’t fail for any prime p.
The largest N is $N = 2^{32} 3^{15} - 2<2^{56}$. Numerical results are inconclusive either way.
For the curious: