Let functions $f$ and $h$ be Riemann integrable and $H(x) = \int_a^x h(t)dt$. Is it always true that the Riemann-Stieltjes integral $\int_a^bf(x)dH(x)$ exists and $\int_a^b f(x) dH(x) = \int_a^bf(x)h(x) dx$?
I remember seeing this used in a reference without a proof. How is it proved?
The closest I could find was the more restrictive Theorem 6.17 in Principles of Mathematical Analysis by Rudin. He proves $\int_a^b fd\alpha = \int_a^bf(x) \alpha'(x) dx$ when $\alpha$ is differentiable in $[a,b]$ and the derivative $\alpha'$ is Riemann integrable.
In general, $H$ as defined is continuous and of bounded variation. Hence, the integral $\int_a^b f \, dH$ exists. Since $H$ has bounded variation, the derivative $h = H'$ exists almost everywhere and the result follows.
More work is needed to prove this under weaker assumptions than what is given in Rudin's theorem.
See here for an elementary proof using Riemann-Stieltjes sums.