Given a tree $T_1 = (V_1, E_1)$ (so a connected acyclic undirected graph is the definition I'm working with) and another tree $T_2 = (V_2, E_2)$, is it true that given any node $v \in V_1$ in $T_1$ and $u \in V_2$ in $T_2$ $$T := ( V_1 \cup V_2, E_1\cup \{v,u\}\cup E_2)$$ Is still a tree? I am very convinced it is true, but I'm not able to prove it rigorously, could someone give me a hint or a counterexample if it's false indeed. Thank you.
Edit: $V_1 \cap V_2 = \emptyset$.
As removing any edge from a tree results in exactly two trees, your conjecture is true (for disjoint trees).
Furthermore, graph A has no cycles, and nor does graph B. A cycle must therefore travel from graph A to graph B and back again, but we have only supplied one new edge to do this with.