It is known that if we assume the axiom of determinacy every set of real numbers is lebesgue measurable. In order to study this, I'm following Jech's Set Theory book. There, Jech says that apart from the axiom of determinacy, it is necessary ZF+DC. However, I don't know why we need DC. Wouldn't the countable axiom of choice be enough?
Indeed, I don't know what are the consequences of DC and what we can't do without it.
I would appreciate any help.