Consider a man who travelled exactly 2 km in two hours.
Is there a one-hour interval when he traveled exactly 1 km?
Can we make a mathematical argument?
I have written my attempt in an answer below. Does anyone else have a better approach? Are my assumptions not necessary, or we can produce counter examples without them? Can we make-do with some intermediate assumptions?
(This is not the same as the Universal Chord question because there's no $f$ with $f(0)=f(1)$ and there's no continuity assumption. Answers to the cyclist question are not satisfactory.)
The velocity $v(t)$ is either continuous or has discontinuities at a finite number of points. Thus, let's assume $v(t)$ is an integrable function and hence its integration is continuous. For $t \in [0, 1]$, we define the distance traveled in the next hour: $$ d(t) = \displaystyle\int_{t}^{t+1hr} v(t) dt $$
Easier way to define $d$ without any velocity assumption: Let $p(t)$ be the position of the man - and define $d(t)=p(t+1)-p(t)$. As teleportation is not allowed, $p$ is continuous, thus so is $d$.
We want to find whether there is always a $t$ where $d(t)$ takes the value 1 km. We know that $d(0)+d(1)=2$.
WLOG assume $m = d(0) \leq d(1) = n $. Then, either $m=n=1$ in which case we're done, or we have $m<1<n$, in which case we can use continuity of $d(t)$ to invoke Intermediate Value Theorem to claim that there was some $t$ in between where the value was $1$.