Suppose $f:[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}$ is differentiable on $(0,1]$ and $\lim_{x\to 0^+} f'(x)$ exists and it is finite. Prove that $f$ has a right hand derivative at $x=0$.
What I know is that there exists some c such that $$\lim_{x\to 0^+}\left(\lim_{x\to y} \frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}\right)=c$$ and $$\lim_{x\to a} f(x)=f(a)$$
I really don't see how I should start from here, any hints welcome.
For $x \in (0,1]$ we have, by the mean value theorem:
$ \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=f'(c(x))$ for some $c(x) \in (0,x)$.
If $L= \lim_{t\to0^+} f'(t$), then we get $ \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=f'(c(x)) \to L$ as $x \to 0^+$