Assume we have f : E → R to be a continuous function and $E ⊂ R^n$ be a closed Jordan measurable set.
Show if E is connected and μ(E) > 0, then there is a point c ∈ E s.t. $\frac 1 {μ(E)} \int_E f(x)dx = f(c)$
Is μ(E) the mean of the set? I know this is related to mean value theorem but is the the same proof?
Here, $\mu$ is presumably Lebesgue measure, so $\mu(E)$ is the measure of $E.$
As far as the proof of this statement, it is almost identical. I'm assuming $E$ is bounded, as that's the only class of sets to which I've seen someone apply "Jordan measurable". If so, then $E\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ is closed and bounded, hence compact, and $f(E) \subset \mathbb{R}$ is the continuous image of a compact, connected set, hence it is compact and connected. In particular, this shows that $f(E) = [a,b]$ for some real numbers $a,b.$
From this point, it's effectively the same as the proof of the usual mean value theorem in that it comes from the basic properties of the integral: $$a\mu(E) = \int_E a\,dx \leq \int_Ef(x)\,dx \leq \int_Eb\,dx = b\mu(E)$$ so that $$\frac{1}{\mu(E)}\int_E f(x)\,dx \in [a,b] = f(E)$$ from which we immediately can conclude the result.