I was reading through this paper, and they mentioned in the beginning-most portion of it that $\sigma$-martingales and local-martingales are equivalent if they are continuous.
- Why must they be continuous (ie: I know local implies sigma martingale in general (straightforward by one of their characterization) but what is an example of a local-martingale which is not a sigma martingale)?
- Why are these equivalent for continuous semi-martingales?
As a partial answer (that is an answer to $1$ only): the process:
$M_t:=\int |Cos(t)|dB_t$, where $B_t$ is a Brownian Motion is a $\sigma$-martingale but not a local martingale.