$A=\{f:\mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R | f \text{ is continuously differentiable}\}$
$B=\{f:\mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R | f \text{ has weak partial derivatives}\}$
I think that $B \subset A$ is true. Am I right?
$A=\{f:\mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R | f \text{ is continuously differentiable}\}$
$B=\{f:\mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R | f \text{ has weak partial derivatives}\}$
I think that $B \subset A$ is true. Am I right?
Suppose $f$ is continuously differentiable. Then the partial derivatives exists and are continuous, hence $L^1_{\text{loc}}$ and the weak derivative are well defined.
A weak derivative $v$ of $f$ with respect to $x_i$ satisfies, for every test function $\phi$ :
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f \partial_{x_i} \phi = - \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} v \phi.$$
But since $\partial_{x_i} f$ is well defined (in its usual sense), integrating by parts shows that taking $v = \partial_{x_i} f$ a.e. is enough.
To sum up : a continuously differentiable function necessarily has weak partial derivatives, so $A \subset B$. And of course it is a proper subset (consider the absolute value). Meaning that functions with weak derivative does not necessarily have continuous derivatives (it may not have -usual- derivatives at all). Note to finish that weak derivatives coincide with derivatives as soon as $f$ is differentiable (you do not need continuity of the derivatives).