Contrary interpretations of Least Squares for Regression

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According to the original thought, our goal is to minimize the quadratic error $$\min\{\frac{1}{2}(Ax-b)^2 \}$$ Then, we search the extremum by the derivation of $x$ $$A^T(Ax-b)=0$$ $$A^TAx=A^Tb$$ $$x=(A^TA)^{-1}A^Tb$$ This is the classical interpretation of Least Square, with a little pic by myself: enter image description here

Furthermore, there is another interpretation according to the lecture of Prof. STRANG, which indicates that we are looking for the projection from $b$ to the column space of $A$ instead of $b$: $$p=Ax=A(A^TA)^{-1}A^Tb$$ with the projection matrix: $$A(A^TA)^{-1}A^T$$ Then, we get another new interpretation with the pic: enter image description here These are two different interpretations of Least Square, with however same formulation. So, I am confused. Why could this happen? Which interpretation is right? And Why?

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Both interpretations are correct.

The only thing that is NOT correct is your interpretation that the column space of $A$ must be the same straight line of your first picture.

EDIT. They cannot give different values of $x$, because $x$ is the same in both intepretations.

First one: $x=(A^TA)^{-1}A^Tb$.

Second one: $x$ is the solution of the linear system $Ax = b$, when you replace $b$ by $p=Ax=A(A^TA)^{-1}A^Tb$.

Ok, do it: $Ax = p =A(A^TA)^{-1}A^Tb $.

Isn't $x = (A^TA)^{-1}A^Tb$ a solution of this system?