I was reading a book on distributions, and the following is classified as a $\delta$-convergent sequence. $$u_n(x)=\frac{n}{\pi(1+n^2x^2)}$$
This was my attempt at understanding why it converges to $\delta(x)$.
$$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty}\left\langle u_n, \phi\right\rangle = \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{n}{\pi(1+n^2x^2)} \ \phi(x)\ dx$$
Then by the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem,
$$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty}\left\langle u_n, \phi\right\rangle = \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{n}{\pi(1+n^2x^2)} \ \phi(x)\ dx$$
$$=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta(x)\ \phi(x) \ dx\quad\quad (1)$$ $$=\left\langle u, \phi\right\rangle$$ Thus, $$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty}u_n=u=\delta(x)$$
First of all, I'm not sure if my process is correct. Second of all, I'm not certain why I would be able to make the claim in step $(1)$.
Thank you in advance.
I suppose $u_n$ is same as $f_n$. We have $\int f_n(x)\phi(x)dx=\int \frac 1 {\pi (1+y^{2})} \phi(\frac y n)dy$ (by the substitution $y=nx$). By DCT we get the limit as $\phi(0)$ (because $\frac 1 {\pi (1+y^{2})}$ is integrable). Since $\int \phi d\delta=\delta( \phi)$ the result follows.