I was working on this integral:
$$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2}$$
Calculations shows that the limits DNE, and therefore the integral diverge. I used Mathematica and found the same result.
But, the integrand is an odd functions, therefore:
$$\forall c \in \Bbb R : \int_{-c}^{+c} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2} = 0 $$
So why don't we just say that: $$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2}=\lim_{c\to\infty} \int_{-c}^{+c} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2}=0$$ And the same for any other odd functions?
I would say that, if the integral $$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2} \tag1 $$ does exist, then we have $$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2}=\lim_{c\to\infty} \int_{-c}^{+c} \frac{x \, dx}{1+x^2}. \tag2 $$ You have to first prove that the integral in $(1)$ exists to deduce $(2)$.
Think about the following analog situation, you can not assert that $$ (-1)^{\infty}=\lim_{n \to \infty}(-1)^{2n}=1. \tag3 $$ One may recall that