I'm having some confusion with inferring the convergence of
$$\sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{j^3+x^2}$$
This looks like a good candidate for Weierstrass M-test.
However, if one does
$$\bigg | \frac{1}{j^3+x^2} \bigg | < \frac{1}{j^3} =: M_j$$
then one is lead to prove the second property required by Weierstrass M-test, which is
$$\sum_{j=1}^{\infty} M_j < \infty$$
But $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^3}$$
is well-known to be the "non-trivial" Apéry's constant.
So is the above sum's value known "well enough" so that I can show/prove that
$$\sum_{j=1}^{\infty} M_j < \infty$$
or should I do something else with my series?
Of course it's correct what you have calculated.
To avoid confusions with Apery's constant:
$$\sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{j^3+x^2}\leq \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{j^3}< \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{j^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
and $\sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{j^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$ is well-known.