I am trying to prove that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}$ converges using the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$.
I know that the latter series converges to 2. Each term of the latter series is bigger than the corresponding term in the former series so the former series converges. I think the proof right now is already sufficient.
However, in my handwritten notes I see something that says "Twice of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$ converges, so $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}$ converges. Why do we need to look at twice of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$, i.e., $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n-2}}$, instead of just $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$?
I could have miswritten something, so I just want to make sure the looking at $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$ alone is sufficient.
I like this one...
For $n> 1$
$\frac{1}{n^2} < \frac {1}{n(n-1)}$
$\sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2} < 1 + \sum_\limits{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n(n-1)} = 1 + \sum_\limits{n=2}^\infty (\frac{1}{n-1} - \frac{1}{n})$
$\sum_\limits{n=2}^N (\frac{1}{n-1} - \frac{1}{n}) = 1-\frac {1}{N}$
Taking the limit as N approaches infinity...
$\sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2} < 2$
What it looks like you have been asked for, though, is to break up this series into blocks like so $(1),(2,3), (4,5,6,7), \cdots.$ With succeeding block twice as big as the one before...
And for each block...
$\sum_\limits {n=2^k}^{2^{k+1}-1}\frac 1{n^2} < 2^k\frac {1}{2^{2k}} = \frac {1}{2^k}$
$\sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2} < \sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{2^n}$
This can be generalized to show that the series $\sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^p}$ converges for all $p>1$
$\sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^p} < \sum_\limits{n=1}^\infty 2^{(1-p)n}$