This problem is from a book reviewed Sep. 2020 Notices of AMS.
Rational numbers in $[0,1]$ are countable. Can they be ordered as $(q_n)_n$ so that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{q_n}{n}$ converges?
My belief is no, since half the rationals are in the upper half of the interval, the tail of the sum will always have half of its terms $\gt \frac{1}{2n}$ implying divergence. I am having difficulty in making this rigorous.
Ruy makes a good point in the comments you could possibly formalise it as follows.
Consider any ordering of the rational numbers in $[0,1]$ and remove those elements of the form $\frac{1}{n}$ where $n$ is a positive integer which is not a positive power of $2$.
This leaves the sequence $\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$
Then define $$ q_n = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} a_{\log_2 n}, \text{ if n is a positive power of 2}\\ \frac{1}{n}, \text{ otherwise}\\ \end{array} \right.$$
This will imply that $$ \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{q_n}{n} < \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left( \frac{1}{n^2} + \frac{1}{2^n} \right) = \frac{\pi^2}{6} + 1$$