Theorem $1:$
Suppose $0\leq f(x)\leq g(x)$ for all sufficiently large $x$.
If $\int_a^\infty g(x)dx $ converges, so does $\int_a^\infty f(x)dx $
If $\int_a^\infty f(x)dx $ diverges, so does $\int_a^\infty g(x)dx $Theorem $2:$ If $0\leq f(x)\leq Cx^{-p}$ for all sufficiently large $x$, where $p\gt 1$, then $\int_a^\infty f(x)dx $ converges.
Note also that $\int_1^\infty x^{-p}dx$ converges iff $p\gt 1$
Now, in the book (using theorem $2$) it says the integral $$\int_0^\infty \frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx$$ converges because $$\frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}\leq \frac {4x}{x^3}=\frac {4}{x^2} , \qquad for \quad x\geq 7$$ What if I wanted to use theorem $1$? I know that $\int_1^\infty x^{-2}dx$ converges and $\frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}\leq {4}{x^{-2}} , \qquad for \quad x\geq 7$
However in theorem $1$ it says that "If $\int_a^\infty g(x)dx $ converges, so does $\int_a^\infty f(x)dx $": Here the lower bounds of the integrals are the same, but in our example the lower bound of the integral is $0$ in $\int_0^\infty \frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx$ and it is $1$ in $\int_1^\infty x^{-2}dx$. Doesn't this make any difference?
I also saw a remark which is:
If $c\gt a$, the convergence of $\int_a^\infty f(x)dx$ is equivalent to that of $\int_c^\infty f(x)dx $
So can we say that the convergence of $\int_0^\infty \frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx$ is equivalent to the convergence of $\int_1^\infty \frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx$ so that now theorem $1$ can be applied correctly?
HINT
Note that
$$\int_0^\infty \frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx=\int_0^1\frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx+\int_1^\infty \frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}dx$$
and the first is a proper integral; for the second note that
$$\frac {2x+14}{x^3+1}\sim \frac1{x^2}$$
and use limit comparison test.