Let $f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^\infty f_i(x)$.
Suppose that $f$ is continuous, and each $f_i$ is continuous. Does it follow that the series converges uniformly to $f$?
Let $f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^\infty f_i(x)$.
Suppose that $f$ is continuous, and each $f_i$ is continuous. Does it follow that the series converges uniformly to $f$?
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