Convert below into the clausal form:
$$\forall\, x\,(\exists\,y\,(q(x)\wedge r(y))\to p(x))$$
I cannot solve this.
$a \implies b$ is equivalent to $\neg a \vee b$.
So you can express your sentence as:
$$ \forall x \: \neg(\exists y \: q(x) \wedge r(y)) \vee p(x)$$
Which is equivalent to:
$$ \forall x \: (\forall y \: \neg q(x) \vee \neg r(y)) \vee p(x)$$
And you can get rid of parentheses:
$$ \forall x \: \forall y \: p(x) \vee \neg q(x) \vee \neg r(y)$$
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$a \implies b$ is equivalent to $\neg a \vee b$.
So you can express your sentence as:
$$ \forall x \: \neg(\exists y \: q(x) \wedge r(y)) \vee p(x)$$
Which is equivalent to:
$$ \forall x \: (\forall y \: \neg q(x) \vee \neg r(y)) \vee p(x)$$
And you can get rid of parentheses:
$$ \forall x \: \forall y \: p(x) \vee \neg q(x) \vee \neg r(y)$$