So I had an exam where one of the questions was: Let a and b be two integers with 1 as their greatest common divisor and let c be a third integer. Show that if a|bc then a|c.
My argument was: "That gcd (a,b)=1 means that a and b have no common factors except 1.That an integer a divides another c implies that a is a factor to c. Since a|bc, a is a factor to bc. Because a can not be a factor to b, a does not divide b. a then has to be a factor to c which means that a divides c."
Summarized: a is a factor to bc. no factor to a except number 1 is a factor to b . a is not a factor to b. a must then be a factor to c.
My teacher said that this is wrong and I have discussed it a bit with him but still cant understand his argument. He gave the exemple 6|12 but 6 does not divide 4 and 6 does not divide 3. He also says this proves my argument is wrong even though the numbers in his exemple do not fulfill that a and b should have 1 as their greatest common divisor. This is what still confuses med. If it says to let a and b have 1 as their greatest common divisor, then why cant I argue from the standpoint that they do? Maybe i was not clear enough or do not understand the exact logic in making correct proofs.
(I know there are better proofs for this question such as from auc+bvc=c but this is all I could figure by then.I also found that I would probably have needed to mention the special case a=b=1 where a actually divides b)
For the proof: Hint: write $ax+by=1$ for some integers $x$ and $y$. Then, multiply by $c$.
If $a$ were prime, then your argument would work. The problem is that part of $a$ might divide $b$ and another part would divide $c$.
If your argument were true, then it would prove that "if $a\nmid b$ and $a\mid bc$, then $a\mid c$", which is false. You never use the full power of the gcd in your argument only that for $a\not=\pm1$, $a$ does not divide $b$.