I am trying to understand why this rule works: \begin{align*} a \equiv b \pmod c \quad k \equiv j \pmod c \qquad &\implies \qquad ka\equiv jb \pmod c \end{align*}
I saw that the proof is $ka-jb= (a-b)k+b(k-j)$.
Is it correct to say that since: $a-b$ and $k-j$ are multiples of $c$, and when we add them upp (times any constant, in this case, $k$, and $b$) we should get a new multiple of $c$ and it turns out that this is $ka-jb$ (expanding the RHS)?
Let us first prove the identity you stated for clarity's sake.
Observe that $(a-b)k + b(k-j) = ak - bk + bk - bj$.
The middle two terms cancel out, and we are left with just $ak-bj$.
How does this help us?
As you said: We know $a-b$ is a multiple of $c$; so let's write $a-b = nc$.
You also note that $k-j$ is a multiple of $c$; so let's write $k-j = mc$.
Putting the pieces together, we then have:
$$ak - bj = (a-b)k + b(k-j) = nck + bmc = c(nk + bm)$$
Therefore, $ak-bj$ is a multiple of $c$; that is, $ak \equiv bj \mod c$. QED