How to prove the following statement:
For any class of sets $\{A_\alpha\}\in \mathcal{P}^2(\mathbb{R})$ such that $A_\alpha \cap A_\beta$ has a zero Lebesgue measure for all $\alpha \neq \beta$, there are at most countable number of sets in $\{A_\alpha\}$ having nonzero Lebesgue measure.
Perhaps the requirement $\{A_\alpha\}\in \mathcal P^2 (\mathbb{R})$ can be dropped.
The standard argument goes by assuming otherwise, and then noting that for some $n\in\mathbb Z$, $\mathcal A=\{\alpha:A_\alpha\cap[n,n+1]$ has nonzero Lebesgue measure$\}$ is still uncountable. The point of this move is that the sets $B_\alpha=A_\alpha\cap[n,n+1]$ for $\alpha\in\mathcal A$ are bounded (in fact, they are all contained in an interval of length 1).
Now argue that for some $m\in\mathbb N$, $\mathcal B=\{\alpha\in\mathcal A:B_\alpha$ has Lebesgue measure $>1/m\}$ is again uncountable. In fact, it is enough that for some $m$ this set is infinite. This is a contradiction, since the union of any $m+1$ of the $B_\alpha$ with $\alpha\in\mathcal B$ has measure larger than $1$ but is contained in $[n,n+1].$