Here is the proposition
When $m(E)<\infty$, if $1 \leq p_2 < p_1 < \infty$, then $$ L^{\infty}(E) \subset L^{p_1}(E) \subset L^{p_2}(E) $$
Is the condition $m(E) < \infty$ necessary? If yes, are there any counterexamples when $m(E) = \infty$?
Here is the proposition
When $m(E)<\infty$, if $1 \leq p_2 < p_1 < \infty$, then $$ L^{\infty}(E) \subset L^{p_1}(E) \subset L^{p_2}(E) $$
Is the condition $m(E) < \infty$ necessary? If yes, are there any counterexamples when $m(E) = \infty$?
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