Let $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $1\le p<n$ and $c>0$. Does
$$\lVert f\rVert_{L^q(\mathbb{R}^n)}\le c \lVert\nabla f\rVert_{L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)}\text{ for all }f\in C_0^\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)$$
imply
$$q=\frac{np}{n-p}\text{?}$$
Let $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $1\le p<n$ and $c>0$. Does
$$\lVert f\rVert_{L^q(\mathbb{R}^n)}\le c \lVert\nabla f\rVert_{L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)}\text{ for all }f\in C_0^\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)$$
imply
$$q=\frac{np}{n-p}\text{?}$$
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Hint: Use the rescaled function $$f_\lambda(x) = f(\lambda x)$$
in your inequality then let $\lambda\to 0$ and $\lambda\to \infty$. conclude that the only possible of $q$ is $q=\frac{np}{n-p}$