My book contains a question-
Using only definition of integral,show that f(x)=sin(1/x) when x is irrational and f(x)=0 when x is rational on [0,1] is not Riemann Integrable.
I'm a beginner in Riemann Integration and before I can understand the intuition behind Riemann integration fully, I'm stuck with this problem. I'm not getting any idea about how to start solving this question.I mean what should be the Partition P on [0,1],how to continue further for evaluation for Upper and Lower Darboux Sum! I welcome any kind of help for this problem.Thank you in advance.